J.R. is a 36-year-old white, middle-class woman who has been sexually active with one partner for the past 2 years. She and her partner have no history of STIs, but her partner has a history of fever blisters. She reports genital pain, genital vesicles and ulcers, and fever and malaise for the last 3 days. Examination reveals adenopathy and vaginal and cervical lesions.
- What drug therapy would you prescribe? Why?
- What are the parameters for monitoring the success of the therapy?
- Discuss specific education for J.R. based on the diagnosis and prescribed therapy.
Submission Instructions:
- Your initial post should be at least 500 words, formatted and cited in current APA style with support from at least 2 academic sources.
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Answer preview
patient would be acyclovir 3 x 400 mg p. o. for 7 days based on the severity of the condition (Sauerbrei, 2016). Besides that, it would be essential to treat the patient’s partner due to his recurrent episodes of herpes. It is worth noting herpes is incurable since the herpes simplex virus causes it. However, acyclovir prevents the symptoms from worsening, relieves discomfort, and shortens the outbreaks of blisters.
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